Although there are different patristic views on whether the "Son of Man" refers to the incarnation or the second coming, there is agreement, however, that verse Daniel 7:13-14 is complicated, because it shows Father as "Ancient of Days", which according to Orthodox interpretation is symbolic presentation. It also presents Son taking "dominion and glory and a kingdom", also a representation that displays events that occurred outside of time to take place in a given timeframe.
Daniel had a vision of things that do not occur in natural time, but at the times of the prophets this was the language of theology: allegory and symbolism.
Regarding Philippians 2:5-11, the phrase "therefore God has highly exalted Him and given Him the name which is above every name, that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, ..." relates to the whole sentence : "who, being in the form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God, but made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bondservant, and coming in the likeness of men. And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to the point of death, even the death of the cross.". I see no emphasis here on Christ the Man. Actually what Philippians 2:5-11 says is that Christ "receives" from Father 'special' powers and privileges as a man precisely because He is God-man (and not just a man).
We should clarify that, in Philippians 2:5-11, the Son is not presented as inferior of his Father, achieving something through which He is lifted at a condition that He had not before.
St Chrysostom explains:
Whatsoever a man robs, and takes contrary to his right, he dares not lay aside, from fear lest it perish, and fall from his possession, but he keeps hold of it continually. He who possesses some dignity which is natural to him, fears not to descend from that dignity, being assured that nothing of this sort will happen to him....the Son of God feared not to descend from His right, for He thought not Deity a prize seized. He was not afraid that any would strip Him of that nature or that right, Wherefore He laid it aside, being confident that He should take it up again. He hid it, knowing that He was not made inferior by so doing.
What is the meaning of the phrase "therefore God has highly exalted Him..."? St Chrysostom explains:
..there had been reason, for God the Word allows that this be said of His flesh. It touches not His divine nature, but has to do altogether with the dispensation. What means "of things in heaven, and things in the earth, and things under the earth "? It means the whole world, and angels, and men, and demons; or that both the just and the living and sinners, "And every tongue," should "confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father." That is, that all should say so; and this is glory to the Father. Seest thou how wherever the Son is glorified, the Father is also glorified? Thus too when the Son is dishonored, the Father is dishonored also. If this be so with us, where the difference is great between fathers and sons, much more in respect of God, where there is no difference, doth honor and insult pass on to Him. If the world be subjected to the Son, this is glory to the Father. And so when we say that He is perfect, wanting nothing, and not inferior to the Father, this is glory to the Father, that he begat such a one.
So, what is the state of the Son, is the state of the Holy Trinity.