Jump to content


Photo
- - - - -

Pericope for Pascha Divine Liturgy

gospel readings

  • Please log in to reply
4 replies to this topic

#1 Monk Herman

Monk Herman

    Regular Poster

  • Members
  • PipPip
  • 51 posts

Posted 25 April 2015 - 06:06 PM

Can anyone tell me why the Gospel reading for Pascha includes St John 1:1-17 but doesnt include verse 18? Why is verse 18 included with the following verses rather than with the rest of St John's prolog?

 

H

 



#2 Owen Jones

Owen Jones

    Very Frequent Poster

  • Members
  • PipPipPipPipPip
  • 3,341 posts
  • Orthodox Christian Member

Posted 26 April 2015 - 05:38 PM

dunno.

 

17 certainly seems to be a necessary explanation of 16

 

But that kind of thing happens a lot, or so it seems to me



#3 Kosta

Kosta

    Very Frequent Poster

  • Members
  • PipPipPipPipPip
  • 1,517 posts

Posted 27 April 2015 - 10:03 AM

It seems the previous verses emphasize the incarnation of the pre-existing Logos into a visible man. Whereas verse 18 is on an emphasis of the invisible Father.

Edited by Kosta, 27 April 2015 - 10:05 AM.


#4 Dcn Alexander Haig

Dcn Alexander Haig

    Frequent Poster

  • Members
  • PipPipPipPip
  • 324 posts
  • Orthodox Christian Member

Posted 27 April 2015 - 08:08 PM

It seems to me this is more about the reading for Monday of Bright Week (John 1:18-28): to emphasis the Forerunner's confession that he is not the Christ.  This is confused where some English translations give a new section heading for verse 19 to suggest a break in phrasing whereas the Fathers have particularly appointed verse 18 to be read with what follows.

 

In Christ

Alexander



#5 Kosta

Kosta

    Very Frequent Poster

  • Members
  • PipPipPipPipPip
  • 1,517 posts

Posted 28 April 2015 - 05:55 AM

I've noticed that break in the "translations", so this is not a coincidence of modern day printing?






0 user(s) are reading this topic

0 members, 0 guests, 0 anonymous users