Can anyone tell me why the Gospel reading for Pascha includes St John 1:1-17 but doesnt include verse 18? Why is verse 18 included with the following verses rather than with the rest of St John's prolog?
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Posted 27 April 2015 - 08:08 PM
It seems to me this is more about the reading for Monday of Bright Week (John 1:18-28): to emphasis the Forerunner's confession that he is not the Christ. This is confused where some English translations give a new section heading for verse 19 to suggest a break in phrasing whereas the Fathers have particularly appointed verse 18 to be read with what follows.
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