W. Lindsay Wheeler
06-08-2004, 05:24 PM
In I Cor 6. 9 is the where St. Paul uses the term, "malakos". I am on an online encyclopedia and have put up an article on the term effeminacy and the traditional meaning of the term.
We are in a battle for our Greek and Christian culture. I am right now in a battle with people who want to deconstruct the term and rewrite it according to homosexual propaganda and modern scholarship. I call it revisionism.
I need some serious scholary help and back up. I am Greek Orthodox and I am trying to do my best.
I first wrote this article but not under the same title. It was first titled "Effeminacy" and then I had to seperate it out.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Classical_definition_of_effeminacy
The information of the below article they want to combine with the above article. I think that there can be two articles and that the word malakos in Greek does not have the same connotation and meaning that they want.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Effeminacy
I need some serious help here. Can you please help me in Jesus name?
This is one of my arguments.
(English is a terrible language. It is not comparable to Greek. Greek is a very scientific language. It has deeper varied meanings to their words. English is a late language and not a pure one. Just because the English strove coined the term effeminacy for several things does not make it a technical language nor an exact translation of the word malakos. Virtue is not a gender role.
:::[[Werner Jaeger]] writes, "The qualities which usually came under the name aretai, "excellences" or "virtues", in the Greek polis—courage, prudence, justice, piety—are excellences of the soul just as health, strength, and beauty are excellences of the body. That is, they are the appropriate powers of particular parts of the soul or their co-operation cultivated to the highest pitch of which man's nature is capable." ''Paideia'', Vol II, pg 44.
::The origin of the word is the Greek word malakos. Their usage comes from the Bible and then the Latin Bible and Plato's writings. The Victorian English concept is the Greek classical concept.)
In Socratic and Aristoleian philosophy, Malakos is a vice. Can you read my article, correct my falacies and help me support the traditional meaning please.
We are in a battle for our Greek and Christian culture. I am right now in a battle with people who want to deconstruct the term and rewrite it according to homosexual propaganda and modern scholarship. I call it revisionism.
I need some serious scholary help and back up. I am Greek Orthodox and I am trying to do my best.
I first wrote this article but not under the same title. It was first titled "Effeminacy" and then I had to seperate it out.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Classical_definition_of_effeminacy
The information of the below article they want to combine with the above article. I think that there can be two articles and that the word malakos in Greek does not have the same connotation and meaning that they want.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Effeminacy
I need some serious help here. Can you please help me in Jesus name?
This is one of my arguments.
(English is a terrible language. It is not comparable to Greek. Greek is a very scientific language. It has deeper varied meanings to their words. English is a late language and not a pure one. Just because the English strove coined the term effeminacy for several things does not make it a technical language nor an exact translation of the word malakos. Virtue is not a gender role.
:::[[Werner Jaeger]] writes, "The qualities which usually came under the name aretai, "excellences" or "virtues", in the Greek polis—courage, prudence, justice, piety—are excellences of the soul just as health, strength, and beauty are excellences of the body. That is, they are the appropriate powers of particular parts of the soul or their co-operation cultivated to the highest pitch of which man's nature is capable." ''Paideia'', Vol II, pg 44.
::The origin of the word is the Greek word malakos. Their usage comes from the Bible and then the Latin Bible and Plato's writings. The Victorian English concept is the Greek classical concept.)
In Socratic and Aristoleian philosophy, Malakos is a vice. Can you read my article, correct my falacies and help me support the traditional meaning please.