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Aidan Kimel
27-07-2006, 06:09 PM
Protestant exegetes of the Apostle Paul insist that when Paul speaks of God justifying sinners, the word he uses (dikaioo) always has a forensic, declarative sense: God declares us to be righteous; he does not actually make us righteous. Thus J. I. Packer: "It [dikaioo] is thus a forensic term, denoting a judicial act of administering the law--in this case, by declaring a verdict of acquittal, and so excluding all possibility of condemnation. Justification thus settles the legal status of the person justified." This forensic interpretation forms the exegetical basis for the Protestant doctrine of imputational righteousness.

My question is this: When the Greek Fathers read the Epistle to the Romans, did they interpret dikaioo as merely forensic and imputational?

Thank you for your help. Alas, I know neither Greek nor Latin.

Ken McRae
27-07-2006, 10:37 PM
Does J.I. Packer believe that Christ is the "wisdom, righteousness, sanctification, and redemption" of the members of His own holy Body?

Ken McRae
28-07-2006, 03:34 AM
What I mean by that essentially is this: does he (Packer) believe that Christ is our righteousness (i.e. justification) with God? Of course he does! Is the righteousness of Christ real? Of course it is, and we know this because death could not hold him down; but he broke the bonds of death and arose from the grave! Glory to Thee, O Lord, glory to Thee! And when the priest, God's minister of reconciliation (2 Cor.5:18), that is to say, a minister of His mercy and forgiveness, declares to you that your sins are forgiven, it is upon this firm rock of the righteousness of Christ!

This sacramental act of granting absolution is certainly a judicial (juridicial) act. We read about "the word of reconciliation" in 2 Cor. 5:19, which (I think) is the word of absolution administered in the holy sacraments (baptism, chrismation, confession, and communion). And we also read that when a minister of reconciliation declares we are reconciled to God, it means our sins are no longer imputed to us (2 Cor 5:18), but the righteousness of Christ! O Glory to God! This grace is not only juridicial, but therapuetic too! This is very important to understand; as it heals the deep wounds of sin, and restores the glorious and Divine Image of the Word within us.

Regarding the sacrament of holy baptism, though, Scripture is very clear that by it we are baptized into Christ; washed, sanctified, justified and forgiven by His grace!! Here's two texts, for example, which lay this out for us: "Baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ (1 Pet. 3:21)." And "Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing [i.e. baptism] of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost; Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour; That being justified by his grace ... etc (Titus 3:5-7)." Can you see it there in Titus: washed, renewed, justified by grace! Thank you Lord Jesus!

Ken McRae
28-07-2006, 06:33 AM
CHAP. 34 [XXIV.] -- BAPTISM IS CALLED SALVATION, AND THE EUCHARIST, LIFE (http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/15011.htm), BY THE CHRISTIANS OF CARTHAGE.

The Christians of Carthage have an excellent name for the sacraments, when they say that baptism is nothing else than "salvation," and the sacrament of the body of Christ nothing else than "life." Whence, however, was this derived, but from that primitive, as I suppose, and apostolic tradition, by which the Churches of Christ maintain it to be an inherent principle, that without baptism and partaking of the supper of the Lord it is impossible for any man to attain either to the kingdom of God or to salvation and everlasting life? So much also does Scripture testify, according to the words which we already quoted. For wherein does their opinion, who designate baptism by the term salvation, differ from what is written: "He saved us by the washing of regeneration (Tit. 3:5)?" or from Peter's statement: "The like figure where-unto even baptism doth also now save us (1 Pet. 3:21)?" And what else do they say who call the sacrament of the Lord's Supper life, than that which is written: "I am the living bread which came down from heaven;" and "The bread that I shall give is my flesh, for the life of the world;" and "Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink His blood, ye shall have no life in you?" If, therefore, as so many and such divine witnesses agree, neither salvation nor eternal life can be hoped for by any man without baptism and the Lord's body and blood, it is vain to promise these blessings to infants without them.

CHAP. 62 [XXXIII.] -- NO ONE CAN BE RECONCILED TO GOD, EXCEPT BY CHRIST. (http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/15011.htm)

In what class, then, do we place baptized infants but amongst believers, as the authority of the catholic Church everywhere asserts? They belong, therefore, among those who have believed; for this is obtained for them by virtue of the sacrament and the answer of their sponsors. And from this it follows that such as are not baptized are reckoned among those who have not believed. Now if they who are baptized are not condemned, these last, as not being baptized, are condemned. He adds, indeed: "But this is the condemnation, that light is come into the world, and men: loved darkness rather than light. Of what does He say, "Light is come into the world," if not of His own advent? and without the sacrament of His advent, how are infants said to be in the light? And why should we not include this fact also in "men's love of darkness," that as they do not themselves believe, so they refuse to think that their infants ought to be baptized, although they are afraid of their incurring the death of the body?

"In God," however, he declares are the "works of him wrought, who cometh to the light," because he is quite aware that his justification results from no merits of his own, but from the grace of God. "For it is God," says the apostle, "who worketh in you both to will and to do of His own good pleasure." This then is the way in which spiritual regeneration is effected in all who come to Christ from their carnal generation. He explained it Himself, and pointed it out, when He was asked, How these things could be? He left it open to no man to settle such a question by human reasoning, lest infants should be deprived of the grace of the remission of sins. There is no other passage leading to Christ; no man can be reconciled to God, or can come to God otherwise, than through Christ.

MISCELLANEOUS COMMENT(S) ON THE ABOVE:-

In these texts, Blessed Augustine links justification by faith directly to the grace communicated through the holy sacraments (of baptism and communion; and though he does not mention holy confession and chrismation, it's my feeling they're implied); for the grace of reconciliation is present in all the holy sacraments (according to a person's lively and effectual faith, of course)!!

Ken McRae
18-08-2006, 08:01 PM
Regarding the sacrament of holy baptism, though, Scripture is very clear that by it we are baptized into Christ; washed, sanctified, justified and forgiven by His grace!! Here's two texts, for example, which lay this out for us:

"Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost; Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour; That being justified by his grace ... etc (Titus 3:5-7)."

And 1 Cor. 6:11 - "Such were some of you: but ye are washed, but ye are sanctified, but ye are justified in the name of the Lord Jesus, and by the Spirit of our God."

From these two texts, we may glean or come to understand that the grace of justification is communicated in the sacrament of holy baptism (and chrismation). Washed, sanctified, justified, says St. Paul; thus showing that sanctification (or the seal of the Spirit) precedes the grace of justification, in the Pauline order of salvation.