Question on Christ's temptation

[Anthony Peggs]

i have a question i've been wondering about, but i absolutley do NOT mean this to sound skeptical or blasphemous......but i am confused on something....


We know that Christ, after His baptism, was led by The Holy Spirit into the wilderness and was tempted by the devil..........how am i suppossed to understand the Lord's Prayer which say's : "Lead us not into temptation."? and i know that God does not tempt us nor is he tempted.....what does this mean? i know He allows us to be tempted, but he doesn't cause it......am i right?......how am i suppossed to view all this rightly?


i'm not sinning or being blasphemous by asking this am i? i'm not doubting nor being skeptical, i just can't quite understand.

Lord have Mercy on me,

Anthony

[Kris]

how am i suppossed to understand the Lord's Prayer which say's : "Lead us not into temptation."?

Hi,

I think this confuses a lot of people. It's simply a case of unclear translation.

The Greek of Matthew 6:13 reads "ke mi eisenigkis imas is pirasmon, alla rise imas apo tou ponirou."

The ONT translates this as "and let us not be brought into temptation, but deliver us from the evil one."

St. John Chrysostom tells us that "evil one" (ponirou) refers to the Adversary.

So quite simply, the prayer is asking God to protect us from the temptations of the devil and not allow us to succumb to them.

For, as you rightly said, "God is incapable of being tempted by evils, and He Himself tempteth no one" (Jacob/James 1:13)

In XC,
Kris

[Anthony Peggs]

Thank you Kris for the reply! that does make sense.

Anthony