Alex Haig
22-01-2010, 06:53 PM
Dear all
This has been something that I have been thinking about for a long time: if I make an error in my assumptions, they are not intended and I would be grateful for correction.
It seems obvious that in the early Church, there was a structure of one metropolitan with bishops under him. These bishops were not 'assistant' bishops in the modern sense, but had their own diocese. (I know that there were some 'country' bishops who may have acted as assistants to the city bishop/metropolitan, but they had their own diocese, not a titular one). These 'suffragans' would meet together with their metropolitan in synod and discuss issues of common importance.
Now, we have a situation that, both in the Slav and Byzantine world, we have metropolitans who do not preside over a synod of bishops. Further, the Greeks (I'm not sure about others) now use the title metropolitan for a bishop who does not even have a (real) diocese.
Now, several (!) questions:
When did this change of usage come in?
Was this change necessary or did it just evolve?
Do we have a definition of metropolitan? (except that he is a bishop)
If no to the above, can any individual autocephalous church give a definition of metropolitan?
(I exclude from this question those where a definition is obvious, such as where the metropolitan is the primate of the church.)
What about those churches where all diocesan bishops are metropolitans?
Is it possible to have a metropolitan who does not have suffragans?
Where does the title 'archbishop' come into all this? Why do some churches have him ranked above a metropolitan (which seems to go against ancient custom)?
Question 5 is particularly interesting to me. Is it to suggest that a diocesan bishop is not a suffragan, therefore is able to act in a way that only the early church metropolitans could act?
I know there are many questions here, and possibly many more too. Please feel free to jump in with answering any of them.
With love in Christ
Alex
This has been something that I have been thinking about for a long time: if I make an error in my assumptions, they are not intended and I would be grateful for correction.
It seems obvious that in the early Church, there was a structure of one metropolitan with bishops under him. These bishops were not 'assistant' bishops in the modern sense, but had their own diocese. (I know that there were some 'country' bishops who may have acted as assistants to the city bishop/metropolitan, but they had their own diocese, not a titular one). These 'suffragans' would meet together with their metropolitan in synod and discuss issues of common importance.
Now, we have a situation that, both in the Slav and Byzantine world, we have metropolitans who do not preside over a synod of bishops. Further, the Greeks (I'm not sure about others) now use the title metropolitan for a bishop who does not even have a (real) diocese.
Now, several (!) questions:
When did this change of usage come in?
Was this change necessary or did it just evolve?
Do we have a definition of metropolitan? (except that he is a bishop)
If no to the above, can any individual autocephalous church give a definition of metropolitan?
(I exclude from this question those where a definition is obvious, such as where the metropolitan is the primate of the church.)
What about those churches where all diocesan bishops are metropolitans?
Is it possible to have a metropolitan who does not have suffragans?
Where does the title 'archbishop' come into all this? Why do some churches have him ranked above a metropolitan (which seems to go against ancient custom)?
Question 5 is particularly interesting to me. Is it to suggest that a diocesan bishop is not a suffragan, therefore is able to act in a way that only the early church metropolitans could act?
I know there are many questions here, and possibly many more too. Please feel free to jump in with answering any of them.
With love in Christ
Alex